Audio Listening Practice Test TOEFL. Full Simulated TOEFL TOEIC SIMULATED

Full Simulated TOEFL

Buku ini dilengkapi aplikasi Full Simulated TOEFL android (4 Paket) yang dapat didownload di playstore dengan kata kunci “genta group” atau gunakan “qr-code” di bawah.

Audio Listening Practice Test TOEFL Buku ini dilengkapi aplikasi Audio Listening Practice Test TOEFL android yang dapat di-download di playstore dengan kata kunci “genta group” atau gunakan “qr-code” di bawah.

Kode Aktivasi Aplikasi:

TOEIC SIMULATED Buku

ini

dilengkapi

aplikasi

TOEIC

SIMULATED android yang dapat di-download di playstore dengan kata kunci “genta group” atau gunakan “qr-code” di samping. Kode Aktivasi Aplikasi:

Pengantar Buku ini hadir setelah melalui proses panjang melalui berbagai riset tentang soal-soal TOEFL dan TOEIC. Hal ini dilakukan untuk mengetahui strategi meningkatkan dan mencapai skor yang tinggi. Hasil riset digunakan untuk menghasilkan buku yang benar-benar dapat dijadikan sebagai pegangan bagi calon peserta tes TOEFL maupun TOEIC. Buku Practice Test TOEFL dan TOEIC adalah Bank Soal standar ETS. Buku ini dapat digunakan sebagai latihan dan evaluasi calon peserta dalam menguasai materi yang diujikan. Buku ini sangat berbeda dari buku yang sudah beredar luas di pasaran, menyediakan materi untuk berlatih bagi calon peserta tes TOEFL maupun TOEIC. Buku ini berisi tipe soal-soal TOEFL dan TOEIC terbaru standar ETS, dilengkapi dengan paket simulasi android dan Listening Audio, yang dapat didownload di play store secara gratis. Buku dan software ini dapat digunakan sebagai acuan belajar calon peserta tes dan senjata ampuh dalam menembus skor yang diinginkan.

Solo, Agustus 2016

Penyusun

v

Content TOEFL IN BRIEF (1–6) TOEIC GENERAL DIRECTION (7–14) TOEFL PRACTICE TEST 1 17 25 33

 Section 1: Listening Comprehension  Section 2: Structure and Written Expression  Section 3: Reading Comprehension

TOEFL PRACTICE TEST 2 47 55 63












vi

Content



TOEIC PRACTICE TEST 9 257 273

 Section 1: Listening Test  Section 2: Reading Test

TOEIC PRACTICE TEST 10 299  Section 1: Listening Test 315  Section 2: Reading Test Script, Kunci, dan Pembahasan TOEFL PRACTICE TEST 1 342  Section 1: Listening Comprehension 352  Section 2: Structure and Written Expression 358  Section 3: Reading Comprehension Script, Kunci, dan Pembahasan TOEFL PRACTICE TEST 2 365  Section 1: Listening Comprehension 375  Section 2: Structure and Written Expression 380  Section 3: Reading Comprehension Script, Kunci, dan Pembahasan TOEFL PRACTICE TEST 3 387  Section 1: Listening Comprehension 397  Section 2: Structure and Written Expression 403  Section 3: Reading Comprehension Script, Kunci, dan Pembahasan TOEFL PRACTICE TEST 4 410  Section 1: Listening Comprehension 421  Section 2: Structure and Written Expression 427  Section 3: Reading Comprehension

vii

Content Script, Kunci, dan Pembahasan TOEFL PRACTICE TEST 5 433  Section 1: Listening Comprehension 443  Section 2: Structure and Written Expression 449  Section 3: Reading Comprehension Script, Kunci, dan Pembahasan TOEFL PRACTICE TEST 6 456  Section 1: Listening Comprehension 466  Section 2: Structure and Written Expression 472  Section 3: Reading Comprehension Script, Kunci, dan Pembahasan TOEFL PRACTICE TEST 7 478  Section 1: Listening Comprehension 488  Section 2: Structure and Written Expression 494  Section 3: Reading Comprehension Script, Kunci, dan Pembahasan TOEFL PRACTICE TEST 8 500  Section 1: Listening Comprehension 509  Section 2: Structure and Written Expression 515  Section 3: Reading Comprehension Script, Kunci, dan Pembahasan TOEIC PRACTICE TEST 9 522  Section 1: Listening Test 544  Section 2: Reading Test Script, Kunci, dan Pembahasan TOEIC PRACTICE TEST 10 568  Section 1: Listening Test 589  Section 2: Reading Test

References About The Author

viii

TOEFL IN BRIEF Sekilas tentang TOEFL TOEFL merupakan test proficiency, yaitu tes yang digunakan untuk mengukur kemampuan bahasa Inggris seseorang tanpa dikaitkan secara langsung dengan proses belajar mengajar. Dengan demikian, TOEFL berbeda dengan achievement test, yaitu tes yang lingkup ujinya terbatas pada bahan yang telah dipelajari siswa dalam satu kelas bahasa Inggris. TOEFL mencakup empat aspek, yaitu (1) Listening Comprehension, (2) Structure and Written Expression, (3) Reading Comprehension, dan (4) Test of Written English (TWE). Ada tiga macam tes TOEFL, yaitu International TOEFL test, Institutional TOEFL Test, dan TOEFL Like-Test. Perbedaannya adalah bahwa soal International TOEFL baru dalam setiap pelaksanaan tes. Sedangkan soal Institutional TOEFL Test dan TOEFL Like-test bersumber pada soal-soal beberapa tahun sebelumnya dari International TOEFL test. Masa berlaku tes TOEFL berbeda-beda. Untuk International TOEFL test, masa berlakunya adalah dua tahun yang dapat diterima di seluruh universitas di dunia. Ia juga dapat digunakan untuk melamar beasiswa ke luar negeri. Bagi Institutional TOEFL Test, masa berlakunya hanya enam bulan, biayanya jauh lebih rendah, tidak dapat digunakan untuk mendaftar ke universitas di luar negeri tetapi ada kalanya dapat dipakai untuk melamar beasiswa ke luar negeri. TOEFL-like test tidak dapat digunakan

untuk mendaftar ke universitas luar negeri, hanya untuk memenuhi persyaratan universitas tertentu di Indonesia.

Jenis TOEFL Sampai saat ini ada tiga jenis TOEFL yang dikeluarkan oleh ETS (English Testing Service), yaitu: 1. PBT (Paper-Based Test) TOEFL 2. CBT (Computer-Based Test) TOEFL 3. iBT (internet-Based Test) TOEFL Perbedaan dari 3 bentuk TOEFL Test tersebut sebagai berikut. 1. PBT (Paper-Based Test) TOEFL PBT-TOEFL adalah bentuk TOEFL Test yang pertama kali dikeluarkan oleh ETS. Sistem tes pada PBT-TOEFL menggunakan paper atau lembaran-lembaran kertas soal dan lembar jawaban yang harus diisi dengan pensil 2B. Materi yang diujikan adalah: •

Listening

•

Structure

•

Reading

Score range 217–677. Lama waktu tes adalah 2–2,5 jam.

TOEFL IN BRIEF

3

TOEFL SCORE CONVERSION TABLE Jawaban

Listening

Structure

Reading

50

68

-

67

49

67

-

66

48

66

-

65

47

65

-

63

46

63

-

61

45

62

-

60

44

61

-

59

43

60

-

58

42

59

-

57

41

58

-

56

40

57

68

55

39

57

67

54

38

56

65

54

37

55

63

53

36

54

61

52

35

54

60

52

34

53

58

51

33

52

57

50

32

52

56

49

31

51

55

48

30

51

54

48

29

50

53

47

28

49

52

46

27

49

51

46

26

48

50

45

25

48

49

44

Benar

6

TOEFL + TOEIC: PRACTICE TEST

Jawaban

Listening

Structure

Reading

24

47

48

43

23

47

47

43

22

46

46

42

21

45

45

41

20

45

44

40

19

44

43

39

18

43

42

38

17

42

41

37

16

41

40

36

15

41

40

35

14

38

38

34

13

37

37

32

12

37

36

31

11

35

35

30

10

33

33

29

9

32

31

28

8

32

29

28

Benar

7

31

27

27

6

30

26

26

5

29

25

25

4

28

23

24

3

27

22

23

2

26

21

23

1

25

20

22

0

24

20

21

GENERAL DIRECTIONS Apa itu tes TOEIC? “TOEIC” adalah kependekan untuk Test of English for International Communication. Tes TOEIC adalah tes kemahiran bahasa Inggris bagi orang-orang yang bahasa aslinya bukan bahasa Inggris. Skor tes TOEIC menunjukkan seberapa baik orang dapat berkomunikasi dalam bahasa Inggris dengan orang lain pada lingkungan kerja global. Tes tersebut tidak memerlukan pengetahuan atau kosakata khusus,

tes ini hanya mengukur jenis bahasa Inggris yang dipakai dalam aktivitas sehari-hari. Tes TOEIC adalah tes kemahiran berbahasa Inggris yang terkemuka di dunia pada konteks lingkungan kerja global. Lebih dari 4.000 perusahaan di seluruh dunia memakai tes TOEIC, dan lebih dari 2 juta orang mendaftar guna mengambil tes ini setiap tahun.

Bagaimana format tes TOEIC? Test TOEIC adalah tes pilihan ganda, kertas dan pensil selama dua jam yang terdiri dari 200 pertanyaan yang dibagi ke dalam dua bagian waktu terpisah:

Listening and Reading Test • Bagian I: Pemahaman Mendengar

Bagian ini terdiri dari 100 pertanyaan dan dibagi ke dalam empat bagian. Peserta tes mendengar rekaman tentang pernyataan, pertanyaan, percakapan pendek, dan penjelasan singkat, kemudian menjawab pertanyaan-pertanyaan berdasarkan pada segmen-segmen mendengar. Keseluruhan Bagian Pemahaman Pendengaran membutuhkan kira-kira 45 menit.

• Bagian II: Bacaan Bagian bacaan terdiri dari 100 pertanyaan yang disajikan dalam format tertulis pada booklet test. Peserta membaca berbagai macam bahan dan menjawab pertanyaan-pertanyaan berdasarkan kecepatan mereka sendiri yang sesuai dengan bahan bacaan itu sendiri. Keseluruhan bagian bacaan memerlukan 75 menit. Peserta menjawab pertanyaan dengan menandai salah satu dari huruf (A), (B), (C), (D) dengan pensil pada lembar jawaban yang terpisah. Meskipun waktu testing yang sebenarnya adalah kira-kira dua jam, ada waktu tambahan yang diperlukan peserta guna menyelesaikan pertanyaan biografis pada lembar jawaban dan merespon questionnaire singkat tentang pendidikan dan sejarah kerja mereka.

TOEIC GENERAL DIRECTION

9

Format TOEIC Lama dan New TOEIC TOEIC

NEW TOEIC

Listening Comprehension: 100 items

Listening Comprehension: 100 items

Part I

Photographs: 20 questions

Photographs: 10 questions

Part II

Question–Response: 30 questions

Question–Response: 30 questions

Part III

Short Conversation: 30 questions 30 conversations with 1 question each

Conversation: 30 questions 10 conversations with 3 question each

Part IV

Talks: 20 questions

Short Talks: 30 questions; 10 talks with 3 questions each

TOEIC

NEW TOEIC

Reading Comprehension: 100 items

Reading Comprehension: 100 items

Part V

Incomplete Sentences: 40 questions

Incomplete Sentences: 40 questions

Part VI

Error Recognition: 20 questions

Text Completion: 12 questions

Part VII

Reading Comprehension: 40 questions

Single Passages: 28 questions; 7–10 reading texts with 2–5 questions each

Buku ini menggunakan format new TOIEC

Speaking and Writing Test Di dunia kerja global yang persaingannya makin tinggi, para pemilik perusahaan membutuhkan tenaga kerja yang bisa berbicara dan menulis bahasa Inggris dengan baik dan benar serta dapat dengan mudah dipahami isinya. Oleh karena itu, tes ini mencakup:

Double Passages: 20 questions; 4 pairs of reading texts with 5 questions per pair •

Speaking Test - Keterampilan berbicara terutama dalam melakukan presentasi, komunikasi tatap muka, video conferencing, teleconferencing dan percakapan di telepon.

•

Writing Test - Ujian keterampilan menulis lebih ditekankan pada penulisan email atau surat elektronik yang persuasif dan bermacammacam korespondensi bisnis yang umum dikenal dalam dunia kerja.

Apa isi dari tes TOEIC? Tes TOEIC dirancang untuk memenuhi kebutuhan dunia kerja. Pertanyaan-pertanyaan tes dikembangkan dari contoh-contoh bahasa lisan dan tertulis yang dikumpulkan dari berbagai negara di seluruh dunia di mana bahasa Inggris dipakai di tempat kerja. Pertanyaan-pertanyaan tes berisikan banyak suasana dan situasi yang berbeda seperti berikut.

•

Manufacturing - manajemen pabrik, lini perakitan, pengandalian kualitas.

•

Finance and budgeting - perbankan, penanaman modal, perpajakan, akunting, penagihan

•

Corporate development pengembangan produk.

General business - kontrak, perundingan, pemasaran, penjualan, perencanaan bisnis, konferensi.

•

Offices - pertemuan board, committees, suratmenyurat, memoranda, telefon, faks, dan pesan-pesan e-mail, peralatan dan perabotan kantor, prosedur perkantoran.

•

10


-

penelitian,

Apa arti skor tes TOEIC? Ketika mendaftar untuk tes TOEIC, Anda akan menerima TOEIC Examinee Handbook. Buku pegangan ini menyediakan informasi mengenai skor tes TOEIC dan bagaimana skor-skor itu digunakan di berbagai seting internasional. 805–990

High Advance

655–800

Advance

555–650

high intermediate

406–550

Intermediate

305–400

High beginner

205–300

Beginner 2

10–200

Beginner 1

Bagaimana saya mendaftar untuk mengambil tes TOEIC atau memperoleh informasi tentang pengambilan tes? Tes TOEIC tersedia di seluruh dunia. Tes TOEIC paling sering diatur melalui perusahaan-perusahaan atau organisasi lain yang meminta karyawan atau pelamar kerja untuk mengambil tes TOEIC. Jika testing belum disediakan oleh organisasi anda, silahkan menghubungi perwakilan TOEIC lokal guna mengetahui kapan dan di mana anda bisa mengambil tes.

14


TOEFL Practice Test 1 Section 1 Listening Comprehension Section 2 Structure & Written Expression Section 3 Reading Comprehension

SECTION 1

LISTENING COMPREHENSION

Gunakan Audio Listening pada Aplikasi Android

Approximately 40 Minutes 50 Questions In this section of the test, you will have an opportunity to demonstrate your ability to understand conversations and talks in English. There are three parts to this section with special directions for each part. Answer all the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers in this test. When you take the actual TOEFL test, you will not be allowed to take notes or write in your test book. Try to work on Practice Test in the same way.

PART A Directions In Part A, you will hear short conversations between two people. After each conversation, you will hear a question about the conversation. The conversations and questions will not be repeated. After you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your book and choose the best answer. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Here is an example. On the recording, you hear: What does the man mean? In your test book, you read: (A) He doesn't like the painting either. (B) He doesn't know how to paint. (C) He doesn't have any paintings. (D) He doesn't know what to do.

Sample Answer A

B

C

D

You learn from the conversation that neither the man nor the woman likes the painting. The best answer to the question "What does the man mean?" is (A), "He doesn't like the painting either." Therefore, the correct choice is (A). PRACTICE TEST 1 LISTENING COMPREHENSION

17

1. (A) (B) (C) (D)

He can’t go too far away. The cafeteria isn’t too noisy. He prefers to eat in a quiet place. It won’t be easy to find a restaurant.

2. (A) She will help the man get home. (B) She has to go home soon. (C) The man should stop using the bus. (D) The bus will not leave for a long time. 3. (A) He can recommend several cities that are worth visiting. (B) There are many reasons to visit New York. (C) The woman can’t afford to visit New York. (D) He knows of hotels at a variety of prices. 4. (A) She forgot to write down the message. (B) She had to try several times to get her call through. (C) She didn’t understand the caller’s message. (D) She didn’t get to the phone on time. 5. (A) She didn’t hear the speech. (B) She thinks that George is a fine speakers. (C) She doesn’t like serious talks. (D) She disagrees with the man’s opinion. 6. (A) The manager is away from her desk. (B) She’s unsure about the bank’s policy. (C) The man cannot open an account. (D) New accounts are handled by the manager.

18


7. (A) Her easiest exam is tonight. (B) She wishes she could go to a movie. (C) She usually has good luck on exams. (D) She did well on two of her exams. 8. (A) He’ll go to the play with the woman. (B) He can’t go to the play. (C) He doesn’t want people to know where he’s going. (D) He’s already seen the play. 9. (A) She will owns the man some money. (B) She wants to borrow ten dollars. (C) The man should pay her later. (D) The man should forget about the debt. 10. (A) His brother ate the food that was in the refrigerator. (B) His brother helped him clean the refrigerator. (C) He and his brother went out to eat. (D) He and his brother bought a lot of food. 11. (A) Take a course from another professor. (B) Concentrate on the textbook, not the lectures. (C) Borrow his notes to study for exams. (D) Pay attention to what is said in class. 12. (A) She doesn’t know if she can take time off from work. (B) She’ll invite her supervisor to go skiing. (C) She’ll not sure she wants to go. (D) She has been planning the trip for a long time.

SECTION 2

STRUCTURE & WRITTEN EXPRESSION Approximately 25 Minutes 40 Questions This section is designed to measure your ability to recognize language that is appropriate for standard written English. There are two types of questions in this section, with special directions for each type.

STRUCTURE Directions Questions 1–15 are incomplete sentences. Beneath each sentence you will see four words or phrases, marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Choose the one word or phrase that best completes the sentence. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Fill in the space so that the letter inside the oval cannot be seen. Example Geysers have often been compared to volcanoes ... they both emit hot liquids from below the Earth's surface. (A) (B) (C) (D)

due to because in spite of regardless of

Sample Answer A

B

C

D

The sentence should read, "Geysers have often been compared to volcanoes because they both emit hot liquids from below the Earth's surface." Therefore, you should choose (B). Now begin work on the questions. PRACTICE TEST 4 STRUCTURE & WRITTEN EXPRESSION

115

116

1. The role of the ear is ... acoustic disturbances into neural signals suitable for transmission to the brain. (A) to code (B) so that coded (C) coded (D) it coding

6. The first inhabitants of the territories ... Canada came across the Bering Strait and along the edge of the Arctic ice. (A) make up that now (B) make up now that (C) that make up now (D) that now make up

2. The imagist movement in poetry arose during the second decade of the twentieth century ... against romanticism. (A) when a revolt (B) as a revolt (C) a revolt was (D) that a revolt

7. ... need for new schools following the Second World War that provided the sustained thrust for the architectural program in Columbus, Indiana. (A) Since the (B) To be the (C) The (D) It was the

3. ... virtually species have biological clocks that regulate their metabolism over a 24 hour period. (A) All there are (B) All (C) All are (D) They all

8. The soybean contains vitamins, essential minerals, ... high percentage of protein. (A) a (B) and a (C) since a (D) of which a

4. According to United States criminal law, insanity may relieve a person from the usual legal consequences ... (A) what his or her acts have (B) of his or her acts are (C) of his or her acts (D) what of his or her acts

9. Hail is formed when a drop of rain is carried by an updraft to an altitude where ... to freeze it. (A) is the air cold enough (B) the air cold enough (C) the cold enough air (D) the air is cold enough

5. In addition to ... a place where business deals are made, a stock exchange collects statistics, publishes price quotations, and sets rules and standards for trading. (A) being (B) it is (C) that which (D) where is

10. Geometrically, the hyperbolic functions are related to the hyperbola, ... the trigonometric functions are related to the circle. (A) just as (B) same (C) similar to (D) and similar


WRITTEN EXPRESSION Directions Directions: In questions 16–40 each sentence has four underlined words or phrases. The four underlined parts of the sentence are marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Identify the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed in order for the sentence to be correct. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Example I Guppies are sometimes call rainbow fish because of the males’ bright colors. (A) (B) (C) (D)

Sample Answer A

B

C

D

The sentence should read, "Guppies are sometimes called rainbow fish because of the males' bright colors." Therefore, you should choose (A).

Example II Serving several term in Congress, Shirley Chisholm became an important (A) (B) (C) United States politician. (D)

Sample Answer A

B

C

D

The sentence should read, "Serving several terms in Congress, Shirley Chisholm became an important United States politician." Therefore, you should choose (B). Now begin work on the questions.

118


16. The pear tree has simple, oval leaves that are smoother and shinier than them of the apple. (A) (B) (C) (D) 17. In the orbit of a planet around the Sun, the point closest to the Sun is called it the perihelion. (A) (B) (C) (D) 18. In the early 1900’s, Roy Harris created and promoted a distinctly American style of (A) (B) (C) classical music and greatly influenced a number of composer in the United States. (D) 19. The eighteenth century witnessed the emergence of North American ports, particular Boston, (A) (B) New York, and Philadelphia, as major commercial centers within the British empire. (C) (D) 20. Guitarlike instruments have exist since ancient times, but the first written mention (A) (B) (C) of the guitar itself is from the fourteenth century. (D) 21. The law of biogenesis is the principle what all living organisms are derived from a (A) (B) (C) parent or parents. (D) 22. Onyx is a mineral that can be recognized its regular and straight parallel bands of (A) (B) (C) white, black, or brown. (D) 23. There are as many as 200 million insects for every human beings, and in fact their (A) (B) total number exceeds that of all other animals taken together. (C) (D) 24. Native to South America and cultivated there for thousands of years, the peanut (A) (B) is said to have introduced to North America by early explorers. (C) (D)

PRACTICE TEST 4 STRUCTURE & WRITTEN EXPRESSION

119

SECTION 3

READING COMPREHENSION

Approximately 55 Minutes 50 Questions In this section you will read several passages. Each one is followed by several questions about it. For questions 1–50, you are to choose the one best answer, (A), (B), (C), or (D), to each question. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage. Read the following passage:

line (5)

The railroad was not the first institution to impose regularity on society, or to draw attention to the importance of precise timekeeping. For as long as merchants have set out their wares at daybreak and communal festivities have been celebrated, people have been in rough agreement with their neighbors as to the time of day. The value of this tradition is today more apparent than ever. Were it not for public acceptance of a single yardstick of time, social life would be unbearably chaotic: the massive daily transfers of goods, services, and information would proceed in fits and starts; the very fabric of modern society would begin to unravel.

Sample Answer

Example I C A B What is the main idea of the passage? (A) In modern society we must make more time for our neighbors. (B) The traditions of society are timeless. (C) An accepted way of measuring time is essential for the smooth functioning of society. (D) Society judges people by the times at which they conduct certain activities.

D

The main idea of the passage is that societies need to agree about how time is to be measured in order to function smoothly. Therefore, you should choose (C). Example II In line 4, the phrase "this tradition" refers to ... (A) the practice of starting the business day at dawn (B) friendly relations between neighbors (C) the railroad's reliance on time schedules (D) people's agreement on the measurement of time

Sample Answer A

B

C

D

The phrase "this tradition" refers to the preceding clause, "people have been in rough agreement with their neighbors as to the time ofday." Therefore, you should choose (D). PRACTICE TEST 4 READING COMPREHENSION

123

Questions 1–8.

line (5)

(10)

(15)

(20)

(25)

(30)

124

Both the number and the percentage of people in the United States involved in nonagricultural pursuits expanded rapidly during the half century following the Civil War, with some of the most dramatic increases occurring in the domains of transportation, manufacturing, and trade and distribution. The development of the railroad and telegraph systems during the middle third of the nineteenth century led to significant improvements in the speed, volume, and regularity of shipments and communications, making possible a fundamental transformation in the production and distribution of goods. In agriculture, the transformation was marked by the emergence of the grain elevators, the cotton presses, the warehouses, and the commodity exchanges that seemed to so many of the nation’s farmers the visible sign of a vast conspiracy against them. In manufacturing, the transformation was marked by the emergence of a “new factory system” in which plants became larger, more complex, and more systematically organized and managed. And in distribution, the transformation was marked by the emergence of the jobber, the wholesaler, and the mass retailer. These changes radically altered the nature of work during the half century between 1870 and 1920. To be sure, there were still small workshops, where skilled craftspeople manufactured products ranging from newspapers to cabinets to plumbing fixtures. There were the sweatshops in city tenements, where groups of men and women in household settings manufactured clothing or cigars on a piecework basis. And there were factories in occupations such as metalwork where individual contractors presided over what were essentially handicraft proprietorships that coexisted within a single buildings. But as the number of wage earners in manufacturing rose from 2.7 million in 1880 to 4.5 million in 1900 to 8.4 million in 1920, the number of huge plants like the Baldwin Locomotive Works in Philadelphia burgeoned, as did the size of the average plant. (The Baldwin Works had 600 employees in 1855, 3,000 in 1875, and 8,000 in 1900.) By 1920, at least in the northeastern United States where most of the nation’s manufacturing wage earners were concentrated, three-quarters of those worked in factories with more than 100 employees and 30 percent worked in factories with more than 1,000 employees.


1. The word “domains” in line 3 is closest in meaning to ... (A) fields (B) locations (C) organizations (D) occupations 2. What can be inferred from the passage about the agricultural sector of the economy after the Civil War? (A) New technological developments had little effect on farmers. (B) The percentage of the total population working in agriculture declined. (C) Many farms destroyed in the war were rebuilt after the war. (D) Farmers achieved new prosperity because of better rural transportation.

5. Which of the following statements about manufacturing before 1870 can be inferred from the passage? (A) Most manufacturing activity was highly organized. (B) Most manufacturing occurred in relatively small plants. (C) The most commonly manufactured goods were cotton presses. (D) Manufacturing and agriculture each made up about half of the nation’s economy. 6. The word “skilled” in line 18 is closest in meaning to ... (A) hardworking (B) expert (C) well-paid (D) industrial

3. The word “fundamental” in line 7 is closest in meaning to ... (A) possible (B) basic (C) gradual (D) unique

7. The word “presided over” in line 22–23 are closest in meaning to ... (A) managed (B) led to (C) worked in (D) produced

4. Which of the following was NOT mentioned as part of the “new factory system?” (A) A change in the organization of factories. (B) A growth in the complexity of factories. (C) An increase in the size of factories. (D) An increase in the cost of manufacturing industrial products.

8. The author mentions “the Baldwin Locomotive Works” in lines 25–26 because it was ... (A) a well-known metal-works (B) the first plant of its kind in Philadelphia (C) typical of the large factories that were becoming more common (D) typical of factories that consisted of a single building

PRACTICE TEST 4 READING COMPREHENSION

125

TOEIC Practice Test 9 Section 1 Listening Test Section 2 Reading Test

1

Section

Listening Test

In the Listening test, you will be asked to demonstrate how well you understand spoken English. The entire Listening test will last approximately 45 minutes. There are four parts and directions are given for each part. You must mark your answers on the separate answer sheet. Do not write your answers in your test book.

PART 1: PHOTOGRAPHS Directions: For each question in this part, you will hear four statements about a picture in your test book. When you hear the statements, you must select the one statement that best describes what you see in the picture. Then find the number of the question on your answer sheet and mark your answer. The statements will not be printed in your test book and will be spoken only one time. Example

A

Sample Answer B

C

D

Look at the example item below.

Now listen to the four statements. (A) They ‘re leaving the room. (B) They’re turning on the machine. (C) They’re standing near the table. (D) They’re reading the newspaper. Statement (C), “They’re standing near the table,” is the best description of the picture, so you should select answer (C) and mark it on your answer sheet. PRACTICE TEST 9 LISTENING TEST

257

Now Part 1 will begin. 1.

2.

258


PART 2: Question-Response Directions: Directions: You will hear a question or statement and three responses spoken in English. They will not be printed in your test book and will be spoken only one time. Select the best response to the question or statement and mark the letter (A), (B), or (C) on your answer sheet. Example Sample Answer A

B

You will hear

C

:

Where is the meeting room?

You will also hear :

(A) To meet the new director.

(B) It’s the first room on the right.

(C) Yes, at two o’clock.

The best response to the question “Where is the meeting room?” is choice (B), “It’s the first room on the right,” so (B) is the correct answer. You should mark answer (B) on your answer sheet. Now let us begin with question number 11. 11.

Mark your answer on your answer sheet.

12.


13.


14.


15.


16.


17.


18.


19.


20.


21.


22.


23.


24.


PRACTICE TEST 9 LISTENING TEST

263

264

25.


26.


27.


28.


29.


30.


31.


32.


33.


34.


35.


36.


37.


38.


39.


40.



PART 3: Conversations Directions: You will hear some conversations between two people. You will be asked to answer three questions about what the speakers say in each conversation. Select the best response to each question and mark the letter (A), (B), (C), or (D) on your answer sheet. The conversation will not be printed in your test book and will be spoken only one time. 41. Why does the man need the new catalog? (A) to buy a new sweater

45. When is the company interviewing? (A) next month (B) Interviews are over.

(B) to look for a new supplier

(C) the end of the month

(C) to complete the March order

(D) currently

(D) to be ready for the new year

46. Who was present at the interview?

42. What is the man worried about? (A) that the supplier will not have the materials he needs in stock (B) that the supplier has gone out of business

(A) the man (B) the woman (C) Fred (D) three new workers

(C) that the supplier has raised prices

-------------------------------------------------------------

(D) that the new catalog is wrong

47. What is the woman looking for?

43. When do they decide is the best time to call about the new catalog?

(A) information about major hotel chains (B) a new client

(A) tomorrow

(C) advice on where to eat out in Denver

(B) today

(D) a hotel recommendation

(C) after checking on the backorder

48. What is The Ridge?

(D) in March ------------------------------------------------------------44. How does the man feel about the company hiring a new worker? (A) excited

(A) a small independent hotel (B) a mountain (C) a coworker (D) a national hotel chain

(B) nervous (C) resentful (D) proud PRACTICE TEST 9 LISTENING TEST

265

49. Why is the woman going to Denver? (A) for a wedding

(A) She can’t think of ways to be greener.

(B) for a conference

(B) The man doesn’t want to help her.

(C) to meet with a new client

(C) She is afraid she will lose her job.

(D) to meet the regional director

(D) She doesn’t want to save resources.

------------------------------------------------------------50. What is the man’s concern? (A) that the company forgot his bonus (B) that he got Peter’s paycheck (C) that his paycheck bounced (D) that his paycheck was for the wrong amount 51. Why is Peter out of the office? (A) for a funeral (B) because his wife is having surgery (C) for a conference (D) because he is ill 52. In what department does Peter work? (A) sales (B) collections (C) accounting (D) human resources ------------------------------------------------------------53. What does the woman’s supervisor want the woman to do? (A) Write a memo about saving paper. (B) Ask employees to save energy. (C) Come up with ways to be greener. (D) Create a carpooling plan.

266

54. What is the woman’s problem?


55. What can you infer about the man? (A) He drives a bike rather than a car. (B) He works for another company. (C) He wants the woman’s job. (D) He likes the idea of being greener. ------------------------------------------------------------56. What are discussing?

the

man

and

woman

(A) a meeting to introduce a new management team (B) what the new regulations consist of (C) their supervisor and what he wants them to do (D) how to use the new intercom system 57. What problem does the man have? (A) He doesn’t want to go to the meeting on the regulations. (B) He has a conflict between two meetings. (C) He feels the woman is treating him unfairly. (D) He doesn’t care for his supervisor.

Audio Listening Practice Test TOEFL. Full Simulated TOEFL TOEIC SIMULATED

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